Please, can you help me to analyze this result. I need a specialist who can help me to investigate this result and can a person with such a result father a child? If no, what is the remedy or treatment for it?
Welcome to icliniq.com.
The two semen analyses reports show entirely different semen characteristics (attachment removed to protect patient identity). The first report is entirely normal, and the person can father a child as long as his female partner is normal. The second report shows no sperms, hence the person cannot father a child.
But there are few clarifications needed,
1. Whether both reports are from one person only?
2. What were the collection methods?
3. What was the time gap between two reports if both are from one person?
4. What is the fructose value in the second report?
5. What is the serum FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) value in person with the second report?
6 . what does transrectal and scrotal ultrasound show in both?
If you can clarify these points, I shall be able to give still a detailed answer.
Thank you doctor,
The results are for one person. The same person. The first and second result did not take place the same day. He went with his wife to do the first test some months ago during the second one. He went on his own to carry it out in another lab.
My question now is, 1. Is there any treatment for someone With zero sperm? 2. What type of treatment or medication do you recommend?He went for another test this week, and the result still indicates that he has zero sperm.
Welcome back to icliniq.com.
The two reports are precisely opposite, hence I enquired about the collection methods. It is possible that while collecting in the laboratory, he might have used condom containing spermicides to collect the semen by masturbation, thus resulting in zero sperm. Otherwise, it is highly unlikely that the two reports are exactly at two ends of the spectrum. Now coming to your questions,
1. There is a chance that person with zero sperm in the ejaculate can impregnate his wife with his sperm provided he has an absence of sperms due to obstruction in the genital tract, which can be repaired by surgery. He can also impregnate his wife with his sperms, if his FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) levels are normal, indicating normal sperm productions in testis, when, his sperms can be aspirated from the testis, and the same can be used for impregnation using artificial insemination or IVF (in-vitro fertilization).
2. In reality, no other medical treatment can correct this other than the two conditions mentioned above. I would love to have details of fructose values in semen, as well as FSH values in the blood, which can help me in knowing the status of the testicular function. I wish the couple speedy fertility.
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