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The two reports are precisely opposite, hence I enquired about the collection methods. It is possible that while collecting in the laboratory, he might have used condom containing spermicides to collect the semen by masturbation, thus resulting in zero sperm. Otherwise, it is highly unlikely that the two reports are exactly at two ends of the spectrum. Now coming to your questions,
1. There is a chance that person with zero sperm in the ejaculate can impregnate his wife with his sperm provided he has an absence of sperms due to obstruction in the genital tract, which can be repaired by surgery. He can also impregnate his wife with his sperms, if his FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) levels are normal, indicating normal sperm productions in testis, when, his sperms can be aspirated from the testis, and the same can be used for impregnation using artificial insemination or IVF (in-vitro fertilization).
2. In reality, no other medical treatment can correct this other than the two conditions mentioned above. I would love to have details of fructose values in semen, as well as FSH values in the blood, which can help me in knowing the status of the testicular function. I wish the couple speedy fertility.