I have been in a monogamous relationship with my wife for over 4 years. Recently we both had to get screened for a medical procedure she is doing in a month. I tested positive for Chlamydia, she did not. We both re-tested to make sure there were not false positive/negatives. Results came back the same. We had unprotected sex as little as a week before the tests. Prior to my wife, I had 2-3 sexual partners that could have passed the disease to me, but if this were the case ,wouldn't my wife almost certainly have it too? I have learned it can sit dormant, but would still be transmittable? I have never showed any symptoms. These tests have nearly ruined our marriage since all the doctors and her friends have basically said that infidelity is the only explanation. Knowing that I have been true to my partner, it set me down this path of searching for answers. I have found some vague research indicating Chlamydia Like Organisms can be contracted from ticks. I haven't had tick bites recently, but definitely have in the past 4 years. Could something like this induce a positive test result, but not get transferred to my partner? Or are there other explanations?
Asymptomatic chlamydia infectionInvestigations to be done:
Asymptomatic chlamydia infection in a male patient.Treatment plan:
*Eradication of the infection with a suitable oral antibiotic. To be prescribed by the patient’s familiy doctor/GP or urologist.
*Re-test after treatment to control the therapy success
*Protected sex until the end of antibiotic therapy.
*Explaining to those who don’t read medical textbooks properly that many cases of chlamydia in men remain asymptomatic for a very long time, sometimes even indefinitely.
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